No point to this post...

[mickyc]

Not true Rachel. It is all about how you write your contract. I do the same thing (renew my contract yearly). In my contract I have a part that states that I will update the contract yearly and supply each family member with a new copy. They do not have to sign anymore as I now email it out to each family so that I have proof that it was sent. I also state that any major changes (like fee changes) would be given 6 months notice. So families would have lots of time to find alternate care and still give their 3 weeks notice that I require.

It is all how your contract is worded. No you cannot just change the terms whenever you feel the need, you must give proper notice but given proper notice a family can then decide if they want to stay or go but they still need to give you the proper notice as well.

[Rachael]

Not true Rachel. It is all about how you write your contract. I do the same thing (renew my contract yearly). In my contract I have a part that states that I will update the contract yearly and supply each family member with a new copy. They do not have to sign anymore as I now email it out to each family so that I have proof that it was sent. I also state that any major changes (like fee changes) would be given 6 months notice. So families would have lots of time to find alternate care and still give their 3 weeks notice that I require.

It is all how your contract is worded. No you cannot just change the terms whenever you feel the need, you must give proper notice but given proper notice a family can then decide if they want to stay or go but they still need to give you the proper notice as well.

Yes and No. LOL

Providing notice of a change by e-mail is acceptable because it's in writing provided your contract has a clause stating that is the normal procedure. Then with that written proof of notice of change, combined with the original signed contract which includes this procedure and a client's continued presence in the day care after the change is implemented, then yes, that's acceptable.

BUT

Reading this post, and I did state ..

If I am understanding you, you make changes throughout the year but only issue a new contract detailing them in January?

She can't do that if it's literally being done how she's stated.

Right now, her post implies that she doesn't have the original contracts. That implication comes from the statement that she can't "I can't remember who has the old contract and who has the new one etc." which suggests strongly she doesn't have the documents to refer to. Also, her post implies that this is a new decision, from the statement "I decided to have my clients resign contracts in January". It doesn't say that this is her standard practice.

So, if she's making changes throughout the year, and if I'm understanding it correctly which I did question, she's not telling parents in writing that this change has been made and giving them a date when it will be effectively from, then she can't do that.

I think we are both reading this post entirely differently.

I think you are reading it from her having the original/current contracts, informing of changes throughout the year (in writting/by e-mail/in some manner that leaves an evidence trail) with dates of change being effective, and then every January a new contract is issues which includes historic changes clients have agreed to?

I am reading it that she doesn't have the signed contract (since she doesn't know who is on what contract), is making changes throughout the year and is now issuing contracts which summarise changes?

This might be a simple matter of two countries separated by a common language and maybe I'm misunderstanding and being too literal with the text written.

Maybe some clarification?

[flowerchild]

Right now, her post implies that she doesn't have the original contracts. That implication comes from the statement that she can't "I can't remember who has the old contract and who has the new one etc." which suggests strongly she doesn't have the documents to refer to.

Sorry, I can see how that would read that way. I do have the original signed contracts.

I had been making adjustments to my contracts/policies and then just using that contract for new clients. So everyone's contract read a little bit differently. I decided to have everyone resign the contract so that everyone's was the same. Part of this was so that I would give people the correct answers to questions because they all had the same contract. I also didn't think it was fair for different clients to have different "rules" (ie. family x pays me for stat holidays but family y doesn't have to etc)

Also, her post implies that this is a new decision, from the statement "I decided to have my clients resign contracts in January". It doesn't say that this is her standard practice.

This is only my second year, so it's becoming my standard practice. Maybe I should add a statement to that effect into the contract.